There are several reasons to think that the differential war mode bonus is proportional to the population difference - that is, that the Alliance get a 20% war mode bonus, twice as much as the Horde, when the Horde have twice as many people in war mode.
First, it balances the war mode Azerite bonus for both factions. We know that Blizzard is concerned about balancing the factional PVE raid performance. People from both factions had been suggesting a differential war mode bonus all through 8.0, but it wasnât until someone pointed out that a uniform war mode bonus caused a Horde advantage in total Azerite collection that Blizzard actually implemented the system.
Second, this proportionality is accepted on the EU forums. Either they came up with the conclusion independently, or their CMs have been more forthcoming with specific information. Either way, the independent verification adds credibility to the theory.
Third, the quest title. 1.25:1, as you would suggest, would not normally be considered âoverwhelmingâ. In fact, 2:1 is about the lowest odds that could be considered âoverwhelmingâ.
Isnât it more logical to assume the alliance WM bonus represents the corresponding population deficit? For example, this week the bonus is 15%. If there were 100,000 Horde players in WM last week, that would mean there were 85,000 Alliance players.
That would only make sense if the bonus applied across the board, and not just in war mode. Applying that bonus across the board, including with war mode off, would balance the overall Azerite awarded to the two factions, and thus might be a good way of balancing PVE raiding overall.
However, the differential only applies to the war mode bonus, so a 20% Alliance bonus is a factor of two difference, not a 20% difference.
If you think about it, your suggestion canât be correct, anyway. If Alliance were getting a 15% bonus for 15% less war mode population, why would the Horde be getting a 10% bonus? You canât have 15% less Alliance and 10% less Horde at the same time.